Lara Barnett (asker) Jul 10, 2012:

@ Tony I obviously don't always get the hint very well, but thank you for your help and trying to "lead" me to answer.

Tony M Jul 8, 2012:

@ Lara No, absolutely not!

Tony M Jul 8, 2012:

@ Lara Well, I do think it would be better to use the proper word, since one exists in this instance.

Lara Barnett (asker) Jul 8, 2012:

@ Tony Thanks for explanation. So I could just say "... equal to the value of XX.XX GBP and the rate of interest, as set down by law, relating to this invoice." ??

Tony M Jul 8, 2012:

legal/lawful is often a false friend when translating from a number of other languages, since in EN it only normally has the meaning of "something that is allowed by the law" — i.e. it opposes 'illegal / unlawful'.

But of course, in most instances that is not the intended meaning when applied to things like interest rates etc.!

When the meaning is simply "as laid down by law", there is another common term which is usually more applicable.